Illuminatos
#OVOXO
I disagree but ok.
No
I disagree but ok.
Exactly. Pedo is someone sexually attracted to kids. Don't see what's so hard to understand about that. Either people don't listen or don't want to listen.Pedophilia is an attraction, disgusting and wrong as it may be. People are just so used to using pedophile and child molester interchangeably.
When the medical community uses pedophile, they aren't talking about the act if molesting children, they're talking about the attraction alone. The same way that you can be fully normal heterosexual male and have never had sex with a female.
Its one of those things that makes me sick to my stomach, off of thought alone, but I try to be logical about.
I find it funny you're calling into question the fact that most pedos are hetero.I would like to see how they got those stats. Because you can have a pedo who is married who's molest boys. Would they be considered gay or heterosexual? I'm willing to bet that would categorized them as heterosexual but I could be wrong. Also, you gotta look at it's gonna be less reported that a man made a boy mop him up. Those stats sound too high. Especially with men and women I know who have been molested by the same sex.
This "Bizzle" dude is a fukking idiot and so is anyone in here who agreed with him.
No, I'm saying the numbers could be inaccurate depending on how terms are defined. I hear the most pedos are heteresexual statement all the time but my question is how are terms being defined? Is man who molest a boy defined as "gay"? If a man is married with kids but secretly molest boys is he considered "gay". In this PC society I have a hard time believing that but I coud be wrong. I would love to see the stats and how terms are defined.I find it funny you're calling into question the fact that most pedos are hetero.
Just cause you fukk kids doesn't mean you fukk same sex kids de facto.
On that note, you'd expect 50% of society to be gay...and thats not true.
No, I'm saying the numbers could be inaccurate depending on how terms are defined. I hear the most pedos are heteresexual statement all the time but my question is how are terms being defined? Is man who molest a boy defined as "gay"? If a man is married with kids but secretly molest boys is he considered "gay". In this PC society I have a hard time believing that but I coud be wrong. I would love to see the stats and how terms are defined.
I always keep it honest. The reason what I believe is working in juvenile detentions, public schools, etc. I've read a stat that said 1 in 20 boys have been molested. And 1 and 5 girls. That seems like a very low % for boys and I believe that it's a lot factors. Mainly b/c as a society we're not as accepting of it happening to boys. And in boys that I know, they don't want people thinking they're gay because they were forced to do these acts on other men.Look them up. THe number hovers around 70-75% of all pedos commit heterosexual crimes.
Lets be honest. The only reason you don't believe that is cause you think all pedos are fukking EVERYTHING. Thats just not true. And if you're raping kids and you're married to a woman, then thats homosexual. End of story.
Both are physical attractions, pedos aren't trying to create a lifestyle for their fetish like homos are.
...the ones that try to push it as normal get the same
homos do....one obviously disgust me more than the other bcuz instinctively it just does....and u gotta feel bad for both bcuz I don't believe either choose,but bizzle is right that its a defect and the urge is the same....one is just pushed as normal and had the audacity to say that shyt in public
Gotta agree,at least pedophiles know that shyt aint normal and shut up about it...the ones that try to push it as normal get the same
homos do....one obviously disgust me more than the other bcuz instinctively it just does....and u gotta feel bad for both bcuz I don't believe either choose,but bizzle is right that its a defect and the urge is the same....one is just pushed as normal and had the audacity to say that shyt in public
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