well prior to 43 it wasn't an issue, it was just some fluky thing that happened 3x in the 1800s when blacks and women couldn't vote. then it presented itself as reality in modern america people then took notice. and then 45 happened and suddenly it's not a fluke, it's a way for conservatives to win in modern america.
I'd actually argue it was an issue before 43. One of the examples from the 1800s, the election of 1876, helped set the stage for the Jim Crow era.
If you're not familiar with it, the gist of it is the Republican candidate Rutherford B. Hayes received 47.9% of the popular vote and 165 electoral votes to Democratic candidate Samuel Tilden's 50.9% of the popular vote and 184 electoral votes. 185 electoral votes was needed at the time to win the election and 20 electoral votes were undecided (South Carolina, Florida and Louisiana, with a side of extra fukkery with the electors in Oregon). Both parties declared their candidate won in each of the contested states. So in the Compromise of 1877, the two parties cut a deal in which the 20 undecided votes would go to Rutherford B. Hayes, which would give him the 185 needed to win. In return, the Republican party agreed to remove federal troops from the South, which effectively meant the end of Reconstruction.
That's not to say the election was
the cause for the end of Reconstruction. Northern and Republican support for Reconstruction had been waning before the election. Nor would the outcome had been any different had Samuel Tilden won, not with Democrats outwardly wanted to end Reconstruction. But the election was still one of the deciding factors in the fate of Reconstruction, so for Republicans to win it the way they did left a lot of African Americans feeling (rightly IMO) like they had been sold out for political gain.