Psalm 82:
6I said, “You
are gods,
And all of you
are children of the Most High.
7But you shall die like men,
And fall like one of the princes.”
St John 10:
34Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken
No sir.
You have made the same mistake that many people make: quoting Scripture out of context (both Psalm 82 and, subsequently, John 10:34). To properly and appropriately exegete the text, we cannot just read passages in a vacuum.
The entirety of Psalm 82 is about "the gods on trial", or all gods being judged by God (note the lowercase "g" vs the uppercase "G"). It's not about human beings having deistic sensibilities, it's about God's authority being manifested through human beings.
For deeper understanding, we need to FIRST go back to Matthew 22, when Jesus’ enemies came to him with a trick question about paying taxes to Caesar (Matt. 22:17). They thought that if He said it was right to pay taxes, they could discredit Him in the eyes of those who hated Rome and for whom taxes were a much-resented burden. On the other hand, if He said that the Jews should resist Rome by refusing to pay taxes, then they could denounce Him to the Roman authorities as an insurrectionist who was trying to overthrow Caesar. Jesus basically tells them that they should “Give to Caesar what is Caesar's, and to God what is God’s.” (Matt. 22:21).
....and THAT is the exact situation poppin off in Psalm 82, a psalm in which the earthly judges of Israel are being called to account by God. The opening verse says:
"God presides in the great assembly;
he gives judgment among the 'gods'.”
There are two possibilities as to the meaning of “gods” in this verse and verse 6 (“I said, ‘You are “gods”; you are all sons of the Most High’ ”), and neither relate to the human race being gods in the sense you have suggested:
1. Human judges - particularly the judges of Israel. The oldest and, in fact, almost universal view among biblical scholars is that “gods” refers to human judges, particularly the judges of Israel. To call a human judge a “god” may seem strange to us (even when we know that the word for “gods” is the broad term
elohim), but not for ancient Israel. For example, in Exodus 21:6, as part of the Jews’ civil law, the people were told that if a man who had been a slave for six years and was to be set free in the seventh year should nevertheless have come to love his master and want to remain with him, he was to be brought to the elohim, who should pierce his ear as a sign that he had chosen to be a servant for life. The New International Version (and some others) rightly translates this verse: “then his master must take him before the judges.” The same usage occurs several more times in Exodus 22.
The best argument for this view is the way Jesus referred to this psalm in John 10:34–36 (the other verse you quoted). The leaders had accused Him of blasphemy because He habitually called Himself “God’s Son.” Jesus answered, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are gods’? [This is where he referred to Psalm 82.] If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and the Scripture cannot be broken—what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?”
Jesus did not downplay His unique relationship to God and His reply asserted that the Father had set Him apart as His very own and sent Him into the world. What He was doing was replying to their specific accusation, which was His use of the phrase “Son of God” for Himself, and His point was that God had used even stronger language than this of human judges in the Old Testament. Jesus’ reply shows that He regarded Psalm 82 as being about Israel’s civil rulers. As such, it's applicable to a SELECT FEW of God's elect, not the entire human race.
Jesus's reply does something else important, too: it gives one reason why the judges of Israel could be called “gods.” It is because “the word of God came” to them. That is, they were God’s spokesmen. When they acted justly and rendered just judgment it was as if God himself had acted, by acting through them. As such, they should have been living representatives for Him...but they ain't do that, which is what the remainder of the psalm is about.
OR (and I favor the former, but):
2. Demons - the “principalities and powers about which Paul speaks when he writes that the Christian’s struggle “is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this dark world and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms” (Eph. 6:12).
The OT speaks on these powers, occasionally referring to them as “gods” (sometimes translated “angels”). Examples are Isaiah 24:21 (“the Lord will punish the powers in the heaven above”) and Daniel 10:13 (“the prince of the Persian kingdom” who resisted Michael, the archangel). As far as God presiding over an assembly of such “gods” is concerned, an excellent example is Job 1, where “the sons of God” (“angels,” niv), including Satan, present themselves before God in heaven.
Then there's the way in which Psalm 82 speaks of the judgment of God on these “gods.” He says they will “die like mere men.” If they are to die “like” men, the argument goes, then they cannot be men; they must be something else, and the only other thing they can be are demonic powers.
Finally:
And im clear in understanding because man was created to be god..
No, man was created to be IN GOD'S IMAGE...
meaning, to have God's character (His righteousness, etc.), not to be gods themselves (also, it has nothing to do with appearance). Even before The Fall, humans had no God-like, deistic powers. Satan tricked Eve into eating the forbidden fruit because he told her it would make her as knowledgeable as God, which means that she WASN'T to begin with.
Great discussion, y'all....I usually only get to talk biblical research with my classmates or my students. #BibleNerd