1. Where is the scripture to support this?
2. Slavery inherently has racial implications because 1 group is being subjected to a lower state or class.
3. God himself was racially biased and ordered killings of non-israelites including the babies.
Exhibit A: 1 Samuel 15:2-3
2. This is what the Lord Almighty says: ‘I will punish the Amalekites for what they did to Israel when they waylaid them as they came up from Egypt.
3. Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy all that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkeys
Why were they order to kill these people and not told to obey them? Contradictory right?
Several answers here:
-The word in the Greek for slave in the New Testament means "worker", it can be translated either as "slave", "worker", "servant", or "steward". So in some places the intent is lost in translation.
-In the places where it refers to actual slavery, it's referring to what we would call indentured servitude (the rule about releasing an indentured servant after 7 years comes from the Bible). Chattel slavery (like the race-based slavery in the North Atlantic slave trade) was not permitted.
-The NA slave trade that caused the African diaspora is not comparable to slavery in Bible times; many slaves were actually Israelites who went into slavery to pay off debts.
-God commanded Saul to slaughter the Amalekites because they had attacked the weak and sick members of Israel as they came out of Egypt into the wilderness. God gave them roughly 400 years to repent. They didn't.
"Remember what Amalek did to you on the way as you came out of Egypt, how he attacked you on the way when you were faint and weary, and cut off your tail, those who were lagging behind you, and he did not fear God. " --Deuteronomy 25:17-18
Can someone explain this to me. Bible says EXPLICITLY on several occasions in the New Testament that SLAVES SHOULD OBEY THEIR MASTERS.
