Why did God need Moses's wife Zipporah, to cut off their son's foreskin and throw it at Moses's feet so God wouldn't murder the son?

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this isnt true

remember the child of Zipporah is Gershom (a stranger) and Eliezer with Moses

how could Moses wife also be his mother? especially if the Exodus 2 narrative says that Jochebed is Moses mother

see above post, remember Moses "defended the girls form the shepherds, and watered the girls flock" and to the Egyptians animals were considered Gods

for more clarity consider this passage but if this loops

The biggest God Warrior on this site proven wrong on Bible knowledge :wow: that's an L we wish on those right-wing bible thumpers :lolbron:
 

BuckFilly

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He never responds, so I’ll have to ask him why he did that when I get to heaven
 

NAUGHTY

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The Most High was seeking to kill Pharaoh’s son, not the son of Moses. Those verses are often taken out of context because of the wording and the way they oddly transition between each other.

22 And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the Lord, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

23 And I say unto thee (Pharaoh), Let my (GOD) son (Jacob/Israel) go, that he (Jacob/Israel) may serve me: and if thou (Pharaoh) refuse to let him (Jacob/Israel) go, behold, I will slay thy (Pharaoh) son , even thy firstborn.

24 And it came to pass by the way in the inn, that the Lord met him (Pharaoh’s son), and sought to kill him (Pharaoh’s son).



When looking at the context of these verses, why would GOD seek to kill Moses’ son for not letting the Hebrews go? It makes no sense. That alone shows that it wasn’t Moses’ son that the threat was being directed to. Moses was instructed to say those words to Pharaoh and they came to pass, because what was one of the plagues that befell Egypt? The death of the firstborn sons. Moses was basically sent to tell Pharaoh it was on sight.


Verse 25 and onwards is a completely separated instance involving Moses, his wife, and their son, who is being circumcised.

25 Then Zipporah took a sharp stone, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his (Moses) feet, and said, Surely a bloody husband art thou to me.

26 So he (Moses) let him go: then she said, A bloody husband thou art, because of the circumcision.


The use of the word “Then” in verse 25 throws off the whole transition, making it seem as if that entire scenario happened consecutively but it didn’t. It was later on.

Zipporah was an Ethiopian woman. Her customs and culture was alien to that of Moses, who was a Hebrew man. Circumsion was/is an act of covenancy between Abraham’s bloodline descendants and The Most High. Seeing her son being cut up like that startled her, which is why she scolded Moses.

Also not being circumcised wasn’t necessarily an act punishable by death. At least, I don’t think it was. If I’m wrong, then my bad. But if not, again, what sense would it make for Moses’ son to be sought out for death?
 
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MMS

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The biggest God Warrior on this site proven wrong on Bible knowledge :wow: that's an L we wish on those right-wing bible thumpers :lolbron:
i dont look at it like that

belief can be a weapon and/or a shield


When looking at the context of these verses, why would GOD seek to kill Moses’ son for not letting the Hebrews go? It makes no sense. That alone shows that it wasn’t Moses’ son that the threat was being directed to. Moses was instructed to say those words to Pharaoh and they came to pass, because what was one of the plagues that befell Egypt? The death of the firstborn sons. Moses was basically sent to tell Pharaoh it was on sight.
because Moses would be like God to Pharaoh its arguable that if Moses went in the other direction he would be like Pharaoh (IE when God called man "Adam" its like saying he is the first kind of man produced)

so Pharaoh is like a final form Moses if he went in that direction as strange as that sounds

because consider this, in the movie "Prince of Egypt" it shows Moses seeing how he was brought to Pharaohs house and it shows the hebrews being taken and thrown to alligators

the other interpretation is that outside of Moses narrative regardless what is said about the hebrews that is still their fate. So the statement "let my people go" can go in a dark direction (IE why does only one seed cause pregnancy and the others die out)

furthermore the statement "consecrate the firstborn of all who open the womb" what about the direction? if a baby is being born it is "opening" the womb

contemplate that with regards to "caesarian section"
 
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Phitz

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all these people who dont read the Bible or read it out of cultural context and spiritual context where it requires STUDY and ANALYZATION and even learning some Hebrew customes makes them look foolish.


Most of you barely comprehend basic English and you want to critique a book translated from Hebrew to old engish then to modern english that requires study of cultural, spiritual, and historical context and references like a regular subjects do.
 

Sonic Boom of the South

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Rosenbreg's, Rosenberg's...1825, Tulane
The Most High was seeking to kill Pharaoh’s son, not the son of Moses. Those verses are often taken out of context because of the wording and the way they oddly transition between each other.

22 And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the Lord, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

23 And I say unto thee (Pharaoh), Let my (GOD) son (Jacob/Israel) go, that he (Jacob/Israel) may serve me: and if thou (Pharaoh) refuse to let him (Jacob/Israel) go, behold, I will slay thy (Pharaoh) son , even thy firstborn.

24 And it came to pass by the way in the inn, that the Lord met him (Pharaoh’s son), and sought to kill him (Pharaoh’s son).



When looking at the context of these verses, why would GOD seek to kill Moses’ son for not letting the Hebrews go? It makes no sense. That alone shows that it wasn’t Moses’ son that the threat was being directed to. Moses was instructed to say those words to Pharaoh and they came to pass, because what was one of the plagues that befell Egypt? The death of the firstborn sons. Moses was basically sent to tell Pharaoh it was on sight.


Verse 25 and onwards is a completely separated instance involving Moses, his wife, and their son, who is being circumcised.

25 Then Zipporah took a sharp stone, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his (Moses) feet, and said, Surely a bloody husband art thou to me.

26 So he (Moses) let him go: then she said, A bloody husband thou art, because of the circumcision.


The use of the word “Then” in verse 25 throws off the whole transition, making it seem as if that entire scenario happened consecutively but it didn’t. It was later on.

Zipporah was an Ethiopian woman. Her customs and culture was alien to that of Moses, who was a Hebrew man. Circumsion was/is an act of covenancy between Abraham’s bloodline descendants and The Most High. Seeing her son being cut up like that startled her, which is why she scolded Moses.

Also not being circumcised wasn’t necessarily an act punishable by death. At least, I don’t think it was. If I’m wrong, then my bad. But if not, again, what sense would it make for Moses’ son to be sought out for death

Typing all that. :dead:

shyt don't change how stupid and weird the made up story is.

Regardless in the story God was going to kill a child and Moses's wife cut off the foreskin of a child with a sharp stone to stop god from killing that child. :scust:
 

Diunx

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Because the lord works in mysterious ways and most of the times those ways are perverted and psychotic but hey he is full of love, just ask Job, he gave him a brand new set of children and a brand new wife after murdering the others!

Religiontards :mjlol:
 

Robbie3000

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The Most High was seeking to kill Pharaoh’s son, not the son of Moses. Those verses are often taken out of context because of the wording and the way they oddly transition between each other.

22 And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the Lord, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

23 And I say unto thee (Pharaoh), Let my (GOD) son (Jacob/Israel) go, that he (Jacob/Israel) may serve me: and if thou (Pharaoh) refuse to let him (Jacob/Israel) go, behold, I will slay thy (Pharaoh) son , even thy firstborn.

24 And it came to pass by the way in the inn, that the Lord met him (Pharaoh’s son), and sought to kill him (Pharaoh’s son).



When looking at the context of these verses, why would GOD seek to kill Moses’ son for not letting the Hebrews go? It makes no sense. That alone shows that it wasn’t Moses’ son that the threat was being directed to. Moses was instructed to say those words to Pharaoh and they came to pass, because what was one of the plagues that befell Egypt? The death of the firstborn sons. Moses was basically sent to tell Pharaoh it was on sight.


Verse 25 and onwards is a completely separated instance involving Moses, his wife, and their son, who is being circumcised.

25 Then Zipporah took a sharp stone, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his (Moses) feet, and said, Surely a bloody husband art thou to me.

26 So he (Moses) let him go: then she said, A bloody husband thou art, because of the circumcision.


The use of the word “Then” in verse 25 throws off the whole transition, making it seem as if that entire scenario happened consecutively but it didn’t. It was later on.

Zipporah was an Ethiopian woman. Her customs and culture was alien to that of Moses, who was a Hebrew man. Circumsion was/is an act of covenancy between Abraham’s bloodline descendants and The Most High. Seeing her son being cut up like that startled her, which is why she scolded Moses.

Also not being circumcised wasn’t necessarily an act punishable by death. At least, I don’t think it was. If I’m wrong, then my bad. But if not, again, what sense would it make for Moses’ son to be sought out for death?

:dead: You a twisting shyt in hopes of making sense out a nonsense story.

That’s not the only story of the “holy” Bible obsession with foreskin either. The Kkng asks David to bring him the foreskin of 200 dead Philistines. :scust: :dame:
 

MMS

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Because the lord works in mysterious ways and most of the times those ways are perverted and psychotic but hey he is full of love, just ask Job, he gave him a brand new set of children and a brand new wife after murdering the others!

Religiontards :mjlol:
if you understand the meaning of the names

It says that "the sons of God" meet with Job and it says "and Satan was among them" or "adversary was among them" meaning its not clear which one is the adversary. It later says these names as people who spoke with Job (Eliphaz, Bildad and Zophar). The english translation implies it is the three of those individuals plus Satan (adversary) but it could be interpreted that one of the three is the "satan/adversary"

on some door #1, 2 or 3 type logic...that said check the name meanings yourself


I maintain that the term "Ha-elohim" is not translated properly in english. To me it means "House of the creator" because it is "He" with "Elohim" but it also can mean "the elohim". In the story of Balaam and Balak it is used exclusively.

see this term

@Koichos
 
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