All I was saying is that I understood what they were trying to compare, because that would have to be the initial argument before going off the deep end and saying that slaves had more privilege than non-slaves.
And this is what I don't understand.
Since you want to argue in intersectionality, there is a difference between "womanhood" and "white womanhood".
Make no mistake, their comparison was "white womanhood" (or white victimhood) to chattel slavery.
Why? Because white women are the ones "centered" in discussion of womanhood. They are the only ones deemed to have "humanity".
Which is why you were left guessing about the status of black female slaves.
White womanhood is a beneficiary of white manhood. The comparison to chattel or even to "womanhood" does not work at all.

Historically the average man was a serf who's life work benefitted high society members and his family on a lesser extent

