Can anybody that follows the bible explain this?

Thsnnor

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Leviticus 25:8-10 KJV And thou shalt number seven sabbaths of years unto thee, seven times seven years; and the space of the seven sabbaths of years shall be unto thee forty and nine years. [9] Then shalt thou cause the trumpet of the jubile to sound on the tenth day of the seventh month, in the day of atonement shall ye make the trumpet sound throughout all your land. [10] And ye shall hallow the fiftieth year, and proclaim liberty throughout all the land unto all the inhabitants thereof: it shall be a jubile unto you; and ye shall return every man unto his possession, and ye shall return every man unto his family.
 

MostReal

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:coffee:

@benjamin

fj3LuyWl.jpg


It's simple, slavery was okay in the bible days but that last paragraph certainly doesn't coincide with chattel slavery does it?

Next question
 

scarlxrd

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Some arguments attempt to redefine the word "slavery" into something that Biblical scripture doesn't match, for instance:

  • Redefining slavery in the Bible to be less offensive, more like indentured servitude, and wasn't like slavery as defined in U.S. History.
  • Redefining slavery to be so extreme that the Bible's mentions don't qualify. E.g. that slavery is when people are worked 24/7, without and food, water or sleep.
In both cases, these are semantic games, trying to rationalize the Bible's position on slavery. The debate can be brought back into focus if the apologist is asked whether he/she thinks it is moral for one human being to own another, even for a short duration. Then, the Biblical scripture can be quoted to re-establish this concept, regardless of whether the word "slavery" is used or not.
 

scarlxrd

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"He who kidnaps a man, whether he sells him or he is found in his possession, shall surely be put to death." Exodus 21:16

This is ignoring significant context. Surrounding this verse is also written many rules that say one can own slaves. Exodus 21:16
  • Exodus 21:2 - allows one to buy a Hebrew servant for 6 years
  • Exodus 21:4 - any wife given to the slave by the master, and and children born of the wife, remain as slaves when the above slave is freed
  • Exodus 21:5-6 - Allows the husband slave to keep his wife/children if he stays a slave of the master
Upon reading the surrounding context, by sampling King James Version, the Standard Version and New International Version, it's readily understandable that references to "a person" or "a man", is talking about an existing slave, and what the slave does, or what's done to the slave. In this reading, "stealing a man" is talking about stealing someone else's slave. The problem here is not slavery, but stealing.
 

Collateral

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To answer the OP's question; during the period that those passages were written, slavemasters discovered it was easier to control a man's body once you took control of his mind and thus these stories were created to tell slaves to obey their masters. Without large educational systems for the masses and considering the difficulty in dissemenating information at the time, stories were often the main vehicle in instilling social mores. Aesops fables, religious fairy tales giving us 10 little rules to follow, etc. This was one of those stories.
With that being said, you can say that today, Christianity and any other religion are just made up stories and fables used to control minds in an effort to instill social mores as well :yeshrug:
 

TL15

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To the brehs who are defending this answer one question:

Should you/we be obedient to the system of white supremacy? I mean in theory :whoa: in this analogy we are the slaves and the system is the master. Should we be obedient to our oppressors so that we are awarded in death?
 

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Many see this as the Bible condoning all forms of slavery. What many fail to understand is that slavery in biblical times was very different from the slavery that was practiced in the past few centuries in many parts of the world. The slavery in the Bible was not based exclusively on race. People were not enslaved because of their nationality or the color of their skin. In Bible times, slavery was based more on economics; it was a matter of social status. People sold themselves as slaves when they could not pay their debts or provide for their families. In New Testament times, sometimes doctors, lawyers, and even politicians were slaves of someone else. Some people actually chose to be slaves so as to have all their needs provided for by their masters.

the Old and New Testaments condemn the practice of “man-stealing,” which is what happened in Africa in the 19th century. Africans were rounded up by slave-hunters, who sold them to slave-traders, who brought them to the New World to work on plantations and farms. This practice is abhorrent to God. In fact, the penalty for such a crime in the Mosaic Law was death: “Anyone who kidnaps another and either sells him or still has him when he is caught must be put to death” (Exodus 21:16). Similarly, in the New Testament, slave-traders are listed among those who are “ungodly and sinful” and are in the same category as those who kill their fathers or mothers, murderers, adulterers and perverts, and liars and perjurers (1 Timothy 1:8–10

/thread
 

usopp

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I just answered it but keep dodging because truth be told y'all looking for any reason to discredit the bible.
People just don't want to follow.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son. This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but people loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were evil. Everyone who does evil hates the light, and will not come into the light for fear that their deeds will be exposed. But whoever lives by the truth comes into the light, so that it may be seen plainly that what they have done has been done in the sight of God.
John 3:17‭-‬21 NIV
 

Thegospel

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so what kind of slavery is cool exactly? I'd like in depth answers to that (doubt I'll get it). show me to the light brothers
 

Big Daddy

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No matter how many times you read that verse it's still
Mike+Brown+glasses.jpg


and I've never gotten a logical explanation for it
 

Big Daddy

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the Old and New Testaments condemn the practice of “man-stealing,” which is what happened in Africa in the 19th century. Africans were rounded up by slave-hunters, who sold them to slave-traders, who brought them to the New World to work on plantations and farms. This practice is abhorrent to God. In fact, the penalty for such a crime in the Mosaic Law was death: “Anyone who kidnaps another and either sells him or still has him when he is caught must be put to death” (Exodus 21:16). Similarly, in the New Testament, slave-traders are listed among those who are “ungodly and sinful” and are in the same category as those who kill their fathers or mothers, murderers, adulterers and perverts, and liars and perjurers (1 Timothy 1:8–10

I stand corrected :ehh:
 

notPsychosiz

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It was actually put together after Constantine's death. Just like the Quran was put together after Muhammad's death.

He commisioned the first bibles in 331. He died in 337. So he was very much alive.
Fifty Bibles of Constantine - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

What u are refering to is the mass production which was implemented about 60 years after his death by the council of Nicea (a group of bishops and cardinals Constantine put together to do his bidding)... compile, edit, then publish a transcript narrative for christianity that favored both the church and the empire. i.e. the bible.
 
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