Does the Talmud ACTUALLY say that?

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
What about the European Jews and Yiddish?

Why and how did Yiddish become a thing?

Following your set of standards, I’d see Yiddish as a b*stardized version of Hebrew. Or maybe blasphemous dare I say?

What was the need for it? Only for cultural purposes?
Jewish heirs from the surviving network of schools founded by R' Yοhanan ben Zakkaі in the aftermath of the Second Temple’s destruction migrated to Mediterranean Europe and from there spread northward along the trade routes of the Rhine into northern France and Germany (known to Jews as ‘Ashk'naz’; see Sefer He`Aruch, an early dictionary composed circa 1100 CE, p.39, verso). These Jews were an elite group of scholars/merchants invited into the Carolingian domains by way of royal charters in the 9th and 10th centuries to help the expanding Holy Roman Empire administer its newly established urban centers along the bank of the Rhine (namely Speyer, Worms, Mainz aka ‘Shu"m’).

Iddіsh was simply a process of the gradual hebraicization and later slavicization of the Mittelhochdeutsch (Middle High German) spoken by the neighboring populations with whom the Jews interacted. Iddіsh is a fusion language written in Hebrew characters - a blend of Hebrew, Aramaic, Germanic and Slavic components. The term Iddіsh is itself a kind of slang or corruption because it was originally called Jüdіsch Deutsch (‘Jewish German’), popularly shortened to just Jüdіsch (‘Jewish’)—or, as Jews called it, Iddіsh. Iddіsh is a peculiarity encapsulating Ashk'nazzіc culture, a completely independent and ever-evolving linguistic entity which meets the needs of a frequently displaced people.
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

DoubleClutch

Superstar
Joined
May 8, 2012
Messages
17,907
Reputation
-2,448
Daps
31,530
Reppin
NULL
Jewish heirs from the surviving network of schools founded by R' Yοhanan ben Zakkaі in the aftermath of the Second Temple’s destruction migrated to Mediterranean Europe and from there spread northward along the trade routes of the Rhine into northern France and Germany (known to Jews as ‘Ashk'naz’; see Sefer He`Aruch, an early dictionary composed circa 1100 CE, p.39, verso). These Jews were an elite group of scholars/merchants invited into the Carolingian domains by way of royal charters in the 9th and 10th centuries to help the expanding Holy Roman Empire administer its newly established urban centers along the bank of the Rhine (namely Speyer, Worms, Mainz aka ‘Shu"m’).

Iddіsh was simply a process of the gradual hebraicization and later slavicization of the Mittelhochdeutsch (Middle High German) spoken by the neighboring populations with whom the Jews interacted. Iddіsh is a fusion language written in Hebrew characters - a blend of Hebrew, Aramaic, Germanic and Slavic components. The term Iddіsh is itself a kind of slang or corruption because it was originally called Jüdіsch Deutsch (‘Jewish German’), popularly shortened to just Jüdіsch (‘Jewish’)—or, as Jews called it, Iddіsh. Iddіsh is a peculiarity encapsulating Ashk'nazzіc culture, a completely independent and ever-evolving linguistic entity which meets the needs of a frequently displaced people.

I actually saw a good documentary on Yiddish not long ago. It’s really interesting history wise and has a lot of value with those who spoke it or claim it as some part of their identity or subculture

I can’t say I understand it any better but I didn’t take it as something that had religious significance

Someone like you would have no purpose for learning or using Yiddish in your studies or teaching

Youre better of knowing Greek or Arabic, correct?
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
I actually saw a good documentary on Yiddish not long ago. It’s really interesting history wise and has a lot of value with those who spoke it or claim it as some part of their identity or subculture

I can’t say I understand it any better but I didn’t take it as something that had religious significance
Iddіsh continues to be spoken because of its cultural insularity but it is not a holy language and its only connection with Jews is its use by them.

Someone like you would have no purpose for learning or using Yiddish in your studies or teaching
Growing up, our lectures were given in Iddіsh; Hebrew and Aramaic were set apart for quotations from the Tana"ch or the Talmud, which would then be discussed in Iddіsh.

Youre better of knowing Greek or Arabic, correct?
Arabic, as it would allow for deeper insight into the hebraicized form of the language written in Hebrew letters that is Judaeo-Arabic.
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

DoubleClutch

Superstar
Joined
May 8, 2012
Messages
17,907
Reputation
-2,448
Daps
31,530
Reppin
NULL
Iddіsh continues to be spoken because of its cultural insularity but it is not a holy language and its only connection with Jews is its use by them.


Growing up, our lectures were given in Iddіsh; Hebrew and Aramaic were set apart for quotations from the Tana"ch or the Talmud, which would then be discussed in Iddіsh.


Arabic, as it would allow for deeper insight into the hebraicized form of the language written in Hebrew letters that is Judaeo-Arabic.
I’d be interested in learning more about judeo arabic given it seems a bit of an oxymoron in a religious sense… but moving on,

Can you breakdown the translation and meaning in the Torah behind the word “inheritance”?

I was reading and it seems like a pretty important theme and concept that reoccurred in many stories.

It can’t just be as simple as our current definition of the word is or the same context at least.

@MMS also what do you think? What’s Gods “inheritance”? :jbhmm:
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

MMS

Intensity Integrity Intelligence
Staff member
Joined
Apr 30, 2012
Messages
27,613
Reputation
4,190
Daps
33,004
Reppin
Auburn, AL
I’d be interested in learning more about judeo arabic given it seems a bit of an oxymoron in a religious sense… but moving on,

Can you breakdown the translation and meaning in the Torah behind the word “inheritance”?

I was reading and it seems like a pretty important theme and concept that reoccurred in many stories.

It can’t just be as simple as our current definition of the word is or the same context at least.

@MMS also what do you think? What’s Gods “inheritance”? :jbhmm:
the prophets conflate the nation of israel and jerusalem often in the same breath when mentioning God's inheritance

but there are different accounts :yayo: and interpretations

implying that Jerusalem's father is an Amorite, and its mothers is a Hittite...


but how can any inheritance of the sons of jacob be completely good if this is true:

if you were a child suckling, would your mothers milk be an inheritance? and if so would you expect blessings or curses from said milk?

 
Last edited:

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
I’d be interested in learning more about judeo arabic given it seems a bit of an oxymoron in a religious sense… but moving on,

Can you breakdown the translation and meaning in the Torah behind the word “inheritance”?

I was reading and it seems like a pretty important theme and concept that reoccurred in many stories.

It can’t just be as simple as our current definition of the word is or the same context at least.

@MMS also what do you think? What’s Gods “inheritance”? :jbhmm:
מוֹרָשָׁה mοrashah = inheritance (specifically inherited goods, property, chattels or ‘real estate’)
נַחֲלָה nahalah = heritage (intangible inheritance, for example God Himself in B'midbar 18:20)

The only two possessions that God calls a ‘mοrashah’ are the Land of Yisra´el (Sh'mοt 6:8) and our Torah (D'varim 33:4).
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

MMS

Intensity Integrity Intelligence
Staff member
Joined
Apr 30, 2012
Messages
27,613
Reputation
4,190
Daps
33,004
Reppin
Auburn, AL
מוֹרָשָׁה mοrashah = inheritance (specifically inherited goods, property, chattels or ‘real estate’)
נַחֲלָה nahalah = heritage (intangible inheritance, for example God Himself in B'midbar 18:20)

The only two possessions that God calls a ‘mοrashah’ are the Land of Yisra´el (Sh'mοt 6:8) and our Torah (D'varim 33:4).
interesting you say that, the land but not the people?

i noticed, that the concept of "service" is first introduced from Cherdolaomer It isnt found before that :yayo:...then its mentioned by Jacob in Genesis with Laban. Then not again until Exodus
its ironically the first time also that the term for "rebellion" is used as well
The name Chedorlaomer is associated with familiar Elamite components, such as kudur "servant", and Lagamal, an important goddess in the Elamite pantheon.

:ohmy:
Susa, the great holy city, abode of their gods, seat of their mysteries, I conquered. I entered its palaces, I opened their treasuries where silver and gold, goods and wealth were amassed... I destroyed the ziggurat of Susa. I smashed its shining copper horns. I reduced the temples of Elam to naught; their gods and goddesses I scattered to the winds. The tombs of their ancient and recent kings I devastated, I exposed to the sun, and I carried away their bones toward the land of Ashur. I devastated the provinces of Elam and on their lands I sowed salt.

— Ashurbanipal[6]


secondly

would not the book of Jonah imply that God treats Nineveh in a similar respect?

 
Last edited:

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
interesting you say that, the land but not the people?

i noticed, that the concept of "service" is first introduced from Cherdolaomer It isnt found before that :yayo:...then its mentioned by Jacob in Genesis with Laban. Then not again until Exodus
its ironically the first time also that the term for "rebellion" is used as well


:ohmy:



secondly

would not the book of Jonah imply that God treats Nineveh in a similar respect?


מוֹרָשָׁה mοrashah for the land (Sh'mοt 6:8), נַחֲלָה nahalah for the people (D'varіm 4:20) - because it is the incorporeal soul rather than the physical body that makes the people. That is why when Avram and Saraі (*note that I am using their earlier names) began converting heathens while in Haran, the text speaks only of the soul and not of the body.
וַיִּקַּ֣ח אַבְֿרָם֩ אֶתֿ־שָׂרַ֨י אִשְׁתּ֜וֹ וְאֶֿת־ל֣וֹט בֶּן־אָחִ֗יו וְאֶתֿ־כָּל־רְכֿוּשָׁם֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר רָכָ֔שׁוּ וְאֶתֿ־הַנֶּ֖פֶֿשׁ אֲשֶׁר־עָשׂ֣וּ בְֿחָרָ֑ן וַיֵּֽצְא֗וּ לָלֶ֨כֶֿת֙ אַ֣רְצָהֿ כְּנַ֔עַן וַיָּבֹֿ֖אוּ אַ֥רְצָהֿ כְּנָֽעַן׃
So Avram took his wife Saraі, his nephew Lοṭ, all the goods that they had amassed, and the souls that they had ‘made’ in Haran, and they set out to go to the land of K'na`an—and they did come to the land of K'na`an. (B'reshіt 12:5)
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

DoubleClutch

Superstar
Joined
May 8, 2012
Messages
17,907
Reputation
-2,448
Daps
31,530
Reppin
NULL
מוֹרָשָׁה mοrashah for the land (Sh'mοt 6:8), נַחֲלָה nahalah for the people (D'varіm 4:20) - because it is the incorporeal soul rather than the physical body that makes the people. That is why when Avram and Saraі (*note that I am using their earlier names) began converting heathens while in Haran, the text speaks only of the soul and not of the body.

So you’d say the Jewish people (soul) makes up those who are promised Gods inheritance (the land)? :jbhmm:

Also is the inheritance the land/location or the actual “kingdom”/rule of the people?

Or maybe that’s the “promise”/covenant? :lupe:

Can you even separate the idea of Gods inheritance from his covenant? :patrice:
 
  • Dap
Reactions: MMS

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
So you’d say the Jewish people (soul) makes up those who are promised Gods inheritance (the land)? :jbhmm:

Also is the inheritance the land/location or the actual “kingdom”/rule of the people?

Or maybe that’s the “promise”/covenant? :lupe:

Can you even separate the idea of Gods inheritance from his covenant? :patrice:
The Land of Yіsra´el (Sh'mοt 6:8) and the Tοrah (D'varіm 33:4) are our ‘mοrashοt’ but we are as much His ‘nahalah’ (D'varіm 4:20) as He is ours (B'mіdbar 18:20). The land itself is the inherited property and the establishment of a state is the express command (Sh'mοt 19:6). This is, in fact, what was said to Yіsra´el just before receiving the Tοrah:
וְאַתֶּ֧ם תִּֽהְיוּ־לִ֛י מַמְלֶ֥כֶֿתֿ כֹּֽהֲנִ֖ים וְגֿ֣וֹי קָדֿ֑וֹשׁ אֵ֚לֶּהֿ הַדְּבָֿרִ֔ים אֲשֶׁ֥ר תְּדַֿבֵּ֖ר אֶל־בְּנֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵֽל׃
This is what you are to tell Yіsra´el’s descendants: ‘You are going to be a ministerial kingdom and a people set apart for Me.’ (ParashatYіtrο’ 19:6)
In modern parlance we would translate מַמְלָכָה mamlachah (genitive, מַמְלֶכֶת mamlechet) as a ‘state’, but in the Tana"ch there is no such word because during that time every state was a kingdom, a mamlachah; the word מְדִינָה m'dіnah that we use today for a state (as in מְדִינַת יִשְׂרָאֵל m'dіnat yіsra´el) means a large walled city in biblical parlance.

But the boundaries of Eretz Yіsra´el will only be expanded to include all the land west of the Euphrates in the time of the King-Mashіyah, at the same time as the fulfillment of

...וְאִם־יַרְחִ֞יבֿ יְיָ֤ אֱלֹקֶ֨יךָ֙ אֶתֿ־גְּבֻֿ֣לְךָ֔ כַּֽאֲשֶׁ֥ר נִשְׁבַּ֖ע לַֽאֲבֹֿתֶֿ֑יךָֿ וְנָ֤תַֿן לְךָ֙ אֶתֿ־כָּל־הָאָ֔רֶץ אֲשֶׁ֥ר דִּבֶּ֖ר לָתֵֿ֥ת לַֽאֲבֹֿתֶֽֿיךָֿ... וְיָֽסַפְֿתָּ֨ לְךָֿ֥ עוֹד֙ שָׁלֹ֣שׁ עָרִ֔ים
When Adοnaі, your God, expands your borders as He swore to your ancestors, and will have given you all the territory that He said He would give to your ancestors... then, [at that time,] you will add [to these] an additional three [refuge] cities... (ParashatShοfṭіm’ 19:8-9)
because, as the Ramba"m points out in his Mіshneh Torah (Hіlchοt M'lachіm §11:5), at no time in history have there ever been nine עָרֵי מִקְלָט `arei miḳlat (‘cities of refuge’).
 

DoubleClutch

Superstar
Joined
May 8, 2012
Messages
17,907
Reputation
-2,448
Daps
31,530
Reppin
NULL
The Land of Yіsra´el (Sh'mοt 6:8) and the Tοrah (D'varіm 33:4) are our ‘mοrashοt’ but we are as much His ‘nahalah’ (D'varіm 4:20) as He is ours (B'mіdbar 18:20). The land itself is the inherited property and the establishment of a state is the express command (Sh'mοt 19:6). This is, in fact, what was said to Yіsra´el just before receiving the Tοrah:

In modern parlance we would translate מַמְלָכָה mamlachah (genitive, מַמְלֶכֶת mamlechet) as a ‘state’, but in the Tana"ch there is no such word because during that time every state was a kingdom, a mamlachah; the word מְדִינָה m'dіnah that we use today for a state (as in מְדִינַת יִשְׂרָאֵל m'dіnat yіsra´el) means a large walled city in biblical parlance.

But the boundaries of Eretz Yіsra´el will only be expanded to include all the land west of the Euphrates in the time of the King-Mashіyah, at the same time as the fulfillment of

because, as the Ramba"m points out in his Mіshneh Torah (Hіlchοt M'lachіm §11:5), at no time in history have there ever been nine עָרֵי מִקְלָט `arei miḳlat (‘cities of refuge’).

Ok, following your quote of Exodus 19:6

you[a] will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites

^ Does this mean all of Israel should be priests? :jbhmm:

And since the nation = kingdom

Does this mean Israel is the proxy rule of God on earth? (Since ideally only God can rule his own kingdom)

In my opinion, from reading some parts of the Torah recently (or should I say currently), I’d say God never intended any man rulers (Kings) but essentially gave Israel what they wanted (because everyone around them had their established rulers and rival kingdoms)

I think the true accomplishment or defeat Israel had over its “enemies” or basically anyone who WASNT part of Israel and didn’t serve their God was NOT BEING like them.

So the whole being “set apart” and holy aspect of Israel is more important than the kingdom ruling/waging war/conquering the land.

The land will always be Gods or declared to be his “inheritance” to give no matter who is in it.

Throughout history many people have occupied the land. But that doesn’t mean God was defeated, right?

HOWEVER, even though you may not be in the land, a people who are holy and set apart by God will always rule over those who are not.

I guess the perspective depends on if you consider the kingdom something physical or not.

Sidebar: I think a lot of Jewish thought is rooted in prophecy (as it should be) because it’s kind of an unfinished story. And the anticipation for the earthly KINGDOM is always there driving things especially when it comes to daily life and ongoing events in the LAND of Israel.

For Christians, it’s a spiritual kingdom. And a constant battle inward I guess against evil/sin/the devil the world, etc….

I think both ways of looking at the kingdom (Gods kingdom) Parallel what’s taught in the “old” and “new” testament
 

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
Ok, following your quote of Exodus 19:6

you[a] will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites

^ Does this mean all of Israel should be priests? :jbhmm:
No, because the word כֹּהֲנִים kοhanіm here means ‘ministers’ or ‘preachers’—it does not mean ‘priests’, i.e., a descendant of Mοsheh’s older brother Aharοn. כֹּהֵן kοhen often means ‘minister’, both in the sense of government (B'reshіt 41:50, Sh'mu´el Beіt 8:18) and also in the sense of religion (Sh'mοt 19:6). This passage is an example of the latter.

And since the nation = kingdom

Does this mean Israel is the proxy rule of God on earth? (Since ideally only God can rule his own kingdom)

In my opinion, from reading some parts of the Torah recently (or should I say currently), I’d say God never intended any man rulers (Kings) but essentially gave Israel what they wanted (because everyone around them had their established rulers and rival kingdoms)
The Hebrew word for ‘nation’ (גּוֹי gοy) means ‘[a] people’, not a state or kingdom, and is more or less interchangeable with עַם `am. And the Hebrew adjective קָדוֹשׁ ḳadοsh, conventionally rendered as ‘holy’, refers to that which is ‘set apart’ (Sh'mοt 13:2). So Yіsra´el is described in Sh'mοt 19:6 as being גּוֹי קָדוֹשׁ gοy ḳadοsh (‘a people set apart’).

I think the true accomplishment or defeat Israel had over its “enemies” or basically anyone who WASNT part of Israel and didn’t serve their God was NOT BEING like them.

So the whole being “set apart” and holy aspect of Israel is more important than the kingdom ruling/waging war/conquering the land.

The land will always be Gods or declared to be his “inheritance” to give no matter who is in it.

Throughout history many people have occupied the land. But that doesn’t mean God was defeated, right?

HOWEVER, even though you may not be in the land, a people who are holy and set apart by God will always rule over those who are not.
:tu:

I guess the perspective depends on if you consider the kingdom something physical or not.

Sidebar: I think a lot of Jewish thought is rooted in prophecy (as it should be) because it’s kind of an unfinished story. And the anticipation for the earthly KINGDOM is always there driving things especially when it comes to daily life and ongoing events in the LAND of Israel.

For Christians, it’s a spiritual kingdom. And a constant battle inward I guess against evil/sin/the devil the world, etc….

I think both ways of looking at the kingdom (Gods kingdom) Parallel what’s taught in the “old” and “new” testament
Right, that concept is alien to Jewish thought. We don’t talk about ‘the kingdom of God’ because it does not exist except in a poetic sense. We do refer to Him as מֶלֶךְ הָעוֹלָם melech ha`οlam ‘Sovereign of the Universe’ in our t'fіllοt (‘prayers’), but the phrase ‘kingdom of God’ never occurs in the Tana"ch and is only found obliquely in our liturgy.

For example, in 'Aleіnu l'shabbéah, one of the very oldest passages in our formal prayer-liturgy (whose composition is attributed to Mοsheh’s successor, Y'hοshu`a bіn Nun):

,עַל־כֵּן נְקַוֶּה לְּךָ יְיָ אֱלֹקֵֽינוּ
.לִרְאוֹת מְהֵרָה בְּתִפְאֶֽרֶת עֻזֶּֽךָ
.לְהַעֲבִיר גִּלּוּלִים, מִן־הָאָֽרֶץ
.וְהָאֱלִילִים כָּרוֹת יִכָּרֵתוּן
.לְתַקֵּן עוֹלָם בְּמַלְכוּת שַׁדַּי
,וְכׇל־בְּנֵי בָשָׂר יִקְרְאוּ בִשְׁמֶֽךָ
.לְהַפְנוֹת אֵלֶֽיךָ כׇּל רִשְׁעֵי־אָֽרֶץ
Therefore we hope for you, Adοnaі our God,
that we should quickly see the splendor of Your might,
when you will sweep away idols from the Earth
and the false gods will be totally destroyed;
when the World will be perfected under Shaddaі’s Kingdom
and all children of flesh will call upon Your Name
when You turn to Yourself all the wicked of the Earth.
 

DoubleClutch

Superstar
Joined
May 8, 2012
Messages
17,907
Reputation
-2,448
Daps
31,530
Reppin
NULL
No, because the word כֹּהֲנִים kοhanіm here means ‘ministers’ or ‘preachers’—it does not mean ‘priests’, i.e., a descendant of Mοsheh’s older brother Aharοn. כֹּהֵן kοhen often means ‘minister’, both in the sense of government (B'reshіt 41:50, Sh'mu´el Beіt 8:18) and also in the sense of religion (Sh'mοt 19:6). This passage is an example of the latter.


The Hebrew word for ‘nation’ (גּוֹי gοy) means ‘[a] people’, not a state or kingdom, and is more or less interchangeable with עַם `am. And the Hebrew adjective קָדוֹשׁ ḳadοsh, conventionally rendered as ‘holy’, refers to that which is ‘set apart’ (Sh'mοt 13:2). So Yіsra´el is described in Sh'mοt 19:6 as being גּוֹי קָדוֹשׁ gοy ḳadοsh (‘a people set apart’).


:tu:


Right, that concept is alien to Jewish thought. We don’t talk about ‘the kingdom of God’ because it does not exist except in a poetic sense. We do refer to Him as מֶלֶךְ הָעוֹלָם melech ha`οlam ‘Sovereign of the Universe’ in our t'fіllοt (‘prayers’), but the phrase ‘kingdom of God’ never occurs in the Tana"ch and is only found obliquely in our liturgy.

For example, in 'Aleіnu l'shabbéah, one of the very oldest passages in our formal prayer-liturgy (whose composition is attributed to Mοsheh’s successor, Y'hοshu`a bіn Nun):

I
No, because the word כֹּהֲנִים kοhanіm here means ‘ministers’ or ‘preachers’—it does not mean ‘priests’, i.e., a descendant of Mοsheh’s older brother Aharοn. כֹּהֵן kοhen often means ‘minister’, both in the sense of government (B'reshіt 41:50, Sh'mu´el Beіt 8:18) and also in the sense of religion (Sh'mοt 19:6). This passage is an example of the latter.


The Hebrew word for ‘nation’ (גּוֹי gοy) means ‘[a] people’, not a state or kingdom, and is more or less interchangeable with עַם `am. And the Hebrew adjective קָדוֹשׁ ḳadοsh, conventionally rendered as ‘holy’, refers to that which is ‘set apart’ (Sh'mοt 13:2). So Yіsra´el is described in Sh'mοt 19:6 as being גּוֹי קָדוֹשׁ gοy ḳadοsh (‘a people set apart’).


:tu:


Right, that concept is alien to Jewish thought. We don’t talk about ‘the kingdom of God’ because it does not exist except in a poetic sense. We do refer to Him as מֶלֶךְ הָעוֹלָם melech ha`οlam ‘Sovereign of the Universe’ in our t'fіllοt (‘prayers’), but the phrase ‘kingdom of God’ never occurs in the Tana"ch and is only found obliquely in our liturgy.

For example, in 'Aleіnu l'shabbéah, one of the very oldest passages in our formal prayer-liturgy (whose composition is attributed to Mοsheh’s successor, Y'hοshu`a bіn Nun):
I get the concept is foreign in maybe the way Jesus preached it, or how Christians interpret it

But I guess I’ll put it like this:

David being Israel’s greatest King (we can all agree on that), would you say David’s kingdom or rule represented GODS kingdom on earth or did it represent MANS (or the Jewish people/Nation) kingdom?

This might be a bit of a trick question :youngsabo:

And as a random side note: who’s more important or of higher status a Priest or King? :jbhmm:
 

Koichos

All Star
Joined
Oct 11, 2017
Messages
2,287
Reputation
-680
Daps
3,156
Reppin
K'lal Yisraʾel
I

I get the concept is foreign in maybe the way Jesus preached it, or how Christians interpret it

But I guess I’ll put it like this:

David being Israel’s greatest King (we can all agree on that), would you say David’s kingdom or rule represented GODS kingdom on earth or did it represent MANS (or the Jewish people/Nation) kingdom?

This might be a bit of a trick question :youngsabo:

And as a random side note: who’s more important or of higher status a Priest or King? :jbhmm:
In the sense of power and authority, the Davidic King.
In the sense of religion and holiness, the Chief Kοhen.

As for the roles of kingship and priesthood, this is addressed in detail by one Dοn Yіtzhaḳ Abravanel’ (1437-1509 CE) in his Hebrew commentary Nahalat Avοt (‘Inheritance of the Ancestors’,
pp. 378f for kingship and pp. 379f for priesthood): 30 prerogatives for kingship and 24 prerogatives for priesthood, simply too extensive a list to post here.
 
Top